Date: Wed Mar 17 2004 - 07:20:39 EST
The discussions, esp. the one on "dotless i" brought a question up my mind:
Why doesn't capital J have a dot above?
Actually, my feeling is that as a kid, I used to put a dot on top of J during elementary school in Turkey. But as I stated in the subject I am investigating. I need to ask some experts on this field. My only evidence is a present from the 1920s:
(The problem with this alphabet is that i and dotless i should exchange places for collation purposes)
Coming back to my question and actually extending it: Why doesn't capital I and J have a dot above?
My mathematical logic thinks that it should have a dot since it is the same but just bigger. Of course, there must be some ethical, socialogical explanations.
I would be happy to know about some references for the evolution of the Latin Alphabet. Also, do countries have laws that state what kind of alphabet they should use? Or do they rely on trust and best practice?
P.S.: I do remember putting dot on the capital I in an English course and failing the test because of that.
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