Re: New contribution

From: Patrick Andries (
Date: Wed Apr 28 2004 - 21:22:06 EDT

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    Michael Everson a écrit :

    > At 11:51 -0400 2004-04-28, wrote:
    >> but I still want to see an explication here of exactly
    >> why these various abjads are being encoded separately from Hebrew, given
    >> that there is a one-to-one mapping and a continuous path of mutual
    >> intelligibility.
    > The same can be said for Coptic, Greek, and Gothic.
    > Because Hebrew is only *one* of Phoenician's descendants and because
    > there is a requirement to distinguish the two in plain text. There
    > exist Hebrew texts and Greek texts which use this script to display
    > the Tetragrammaton, for instance.

    [PA] I have a question about this. I see that your figure 14 says « Job
    42, again containing the Tetragrammaton in Phoenician script alongside
    Greek text. Apparently no copies of the Septuagint dated before the
    mid-2nd century CE substitutes the Tetragrammaton with Kuros ‘LORD’.
    Sample from ».
    And your Figure 13 says « The Tetragrammaton in Phoenician script is
    indicated with the large black arrow; the rest of the text is Greek. »

    Why do you say Phoenician here while the source you mention says «
    *Notice that the Tetragrammaton is written in the ancient Hebrew
    (Paleo-Hebrew) script. Here is another example of an ancient fragment of
    the Septuagint dating to the First Century CE (AD). This fragment
    contains parts Job 42* »

    Ancient Hebrew or Phoenician ? Is it the same for you ?

    > I am actually astonished to see it suggested that it should be unified
    > with Hebrew. Print a newspaper article in French with Fraktur or
    > Gaelic and people will be able to read it. [...] Print a newspaper
    > article in Hebrew with Phoenician letters and no one wil be able to
    > read it.

    [PA] Try with Sütterlin and I don't believe many more will be able to
    read it.

    (This cryptic paragraph would have been written by my schoolmasters)

    P. A.

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