From: Peter Kirk (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun May 02 2004 - 13:43:03 CDT
On 02/05/2004 06:46, Michael Everson wrote:
>> And if it requires anything at all beyond the very basic conformance
>> requirements, it can be presumed to require that the Latin blocks are
>> used for Latin script, the Hebrew block for Hebrew script, and so (if
>> and when one is defined) the Phoenician block for Phoenician script.
> And if you want to write Phoenician text in Phoenician script, you can
> use Phoenician script for it. And if you want to write Phoenician text
> in Hebrew transliteration, you can use Hebrew script for it. And if
> you want to write Phoenician text in Latin transliteration, you can
> use Latin script for it.
So you agree with me that "if you want to write Phoenician text in
Phoenician script, you can use Phoenician script for it". Do you say
that you "must" use Phoenician script? Apparently not.
>> If the Hebrew block is use for Phoenician script (not for
>> transliteration but with masquerading fonts), that is just as much a
>> failure to do what Unicode requires as to use the Latin block for
>> Hebrew script with a legacy encoding.
> That would be no different from using the Latin block for Phoenician
> script with masquerading fonts. Neither case is a "failure" of the
> Unicode Standard.
Not a failure of the standard, of course, but a failure to do what the
standard requires. Well, is it? That is the question which you have not
answered. Does Unicode say that I should not use the Latin block for
Hebrew script with a legacy encoding and a masquerading font? Will it
say that I should not use the Hebrew block for Phoenician script with a
-- Peter Kirk email@example.com (personal) firstname.lastname@example.org (work) http://www.qaya.org/
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