RE: New contribution

From: E. Keown (
Date: Wed May 05 2004 - 19:04:48 CDT

            Elaine Keown ---- Tucson
Peter Constable wrote:
> Unless there are behaviours in Phoenician that distinguish it from
> Hebrew.
S. Montagu wrote:

Phoenician lacks Hebrew's separate forms for medial and final kaf, mem,
nun, pe and tsadi, so there is not an exact one-to-one mapping.

Hebrew doesn't add final forms until about the time of the Dead Sea Scrolls--they aren't added *consistently* until after that time--so Hebrew from 1,150 B.C.E.-- 200 C.E. also doesn't have these forms.--Elaine

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