From: Mike Ayers (email@example.com)
Date: Wed May 26 2004 - 12:37:18 CDT
> From: firstname.lastname@example.org [mailto:email@example.com]On
> Behalf Of Dean Snyder
> Sent: Wednesday, May 26, 2004 8:41 AM
> We also have to remember that the Siloam inscription test:
> * was in "handwriting" incised in stone
Does this mean that the form of the characters in the Siloam
inscription were different from those typically used in Phoenician and
> * was in a different orthography than modern Hebrew
I'm not sure quite what this means. I thought it was agreed that
the orthographies of Modern Hebrew and Paleo-Hebrew were different...?
> * using dots to separate words
> * and lacked vowel indicators (matres lectionis), very important
> contextual clues for reading modern Hebrew
Doesn't Paleo-Hebrew lack them as well?
P.S. I think this whole legibility test trip is irrelevant. I'm trying to
figure out what does and doesn't separate things.
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