From: Simon Montagu (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Jun 04 2004 - 23:50:48 CDT
Peter Kirk wrote:
> But I accept that this Coptic to Greek compatibility has a few problems
> because not all characters have mappings. However, this is not a problem
> for Phoenician, because *every* Phoenician character has an unambiguous
> compatibility mapping to an existing Hebrew character.
As I've said before, final forms in Hebrew make this not 100% true, and
I have seen both mappings in use in practice. For example
shows the text of the Mesha stele beginning
"אנכ. משע. בנ. כמש.. . מלכ. מאב", and I have a book (2 Kings in the
"Olam Hatanach" series) which shows it beginning
"אנך. משע. בן. כמש[ית] . מלך. מאב"
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