Re: polytonic Greek: diacritics above long vowels á¾±, á¿‘, á¿¡

From: Richard Wordingham <richard.wordingham_at_ntlworld.com>
Date: Mon, 5 Aug 2013 21:25:28 +0100

On Sun, 04 Aug 2013 19:21:34 -0700
Stephan Stiller <stephan.stiller_at_gmail.com> wrote:

> > Most of the polytonic precomposed vowels are in the auxiliary
> > exemplars for Modern Greek.
> I don't know – probably because of the Katharevousa legacy and the
> fact that Ancient Greek lives on in literary idioms, for which you
> ordinarily don't use a macron for reasons of orthographic convention.
> (And as for the breve, you shouldn't be needing it anyways.)

> It
> doesn't really matter what the precise reason is: the two are
> different languages, so "it's not in D, so it shouldn't be in A" is
> a /non sequitur/, esp if you know that D is a typographically smaller
> language in a number of respects. Or maybe someone made mistakes.

There's no logical implication, and none was intended. However, if
vowels with macrons had made it into D, then one would expect them in A.

> > A CLDR entry could get rather silly when deciding on the Attic,
> > Ionic and Doric Greek for Yoruba and !Xu - Cambodia's going to be
> > bad enough. Do we look for the Ancient Greek representation of
> > Kambuja?
> successfully lost me here :-)

Sorry, I'd overestimated the data requirements for a language to have
a CLDR entry. I'd got the impression it had to have a translation for
the name of every language and territory in the CLDR. It seems that
Classical Greek might qualify, though Classical Latin wouldn't. A
Latin script language has to have documentation on its decimal
separators, and Classical Latin doesn't have decimal numbers for them
to apply to!
 
Richard.
Received on Mon Aug 05 2013 - 15:31:18 CDT

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