Re: Why blackletter letters?

From: Asmus Freytag <>
Date: Thu, 12 Sep 2013 00:09:55 -0700

On 9/11/2013 9:50 PM, Charlie Ruland ☘ wrote:
> One final remark: Thinking about it I have the impression that the
> blackletter vs. antiqua distinction once made in German very much
> resembles that made between Hiragana and Katakana in Japanese. In both
> cases the underlying systems of the corresponding scripts are
> essentially the same; yet it seems impossible to read the other script
> without further instruction and exercise; and in both languages one
> script is used primarily for inherited, and the other for foreign words.

The interesting situation is that this distinction is overlaid with the
later shift to antiqua which gave rise to entire parallel texts as books
were reissued in the more modern antiqua. it is that transition that is
best supported by seeing Latin as a unified script. Faithful layout in
Fraktur requiring more than a font shift, separate encoding might have
been considered, had that transition not yet occurred..

Received on Thu Sep 12 2013 - 02:12:44 CDT

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