Date: Mon Dec 15 2003 - 11:53:34 EST
> As an analogy, albeit a rather silly one, if (in mathematics) I put a
> dot over a (single-letter) variable name to indicate (say) first
> derivative or something, I would have to put an /extra/ dot over i,
> would I not? Does that not make it "conceptually" dotless, even though
> it's rendered with a dot?
Since i is soft-dotted presumably you'd take off a dot, and then put on a dot.
Clear as mud!
-- Jon Hanna | Toys and books <http://www.hackcraft.net/> | for hospitals: | <http://santa.boards.ie>
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