RE: Case mapping of dotless lowercase letters

Date: Mon Dec 15 2003 - 11:53:34 EST

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    > As an analogy, albeit a rather silly one, if (in mathematics) I put a
    > dot over a (single-letter) variable name to indicate (say) first
    > derivative or something, I would have to put an /extra/ dot over i,
    > would I not? Does that not make it "conceptually" dotless, even though
    > it's rendered with a dot?

    Since i is soft-dotted presumably you'd take off a dot, and then put on a dot.
    Clear as mud!

    Jon Hanna                   | Toys and books
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