From: D. Starner (shalesller@writeme.com)
Date: Sun Jun 06 2004 - 17:50:47 CDT
> (As a rhetorical device,) I have to say that I'm puzzled by this. All
> I've seemed to hear from Semiticists is that Phoenician is not a
> separate script. How, then, can these same Semiticists be the major
> users of something that doesn't exist?
There's a big difference between Phoenician not being a separate script
from those already encoded in Unicode, and it not existing. It certainly
exists as a script variant, like Fraktur.
In that sense, treating Phoenician as a script variant of Hebrew is a big
win for many of the users of the script, since they would have a hard time
deciphering the bizarre (to them) script variant but have no problem reading
texts originally written in it in different fonts.
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