Re: not font designers?

From: Christopher Fynn (cfynn@gmx.net)
Date: Mon Nov 08 2004 - 14:29:40 CST

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    Peter Kirk wrote:

    > Not EXACTLY. There is a precise and clearly defined one-to-one mapping
    > between Hebrew and Phoenician letters (at least if you ignore final
    > forms).

    There is a precise and clearly defined one to one mapping between most
    of the Indic scripts (ISCII does precisely this) - yet the Indic scripts
    are encoded separately.

    - Chris

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