Re: Omega + upsilon ligature?

From: Martin Kochanski (unicode@cardbox.net)
Date: Wed Oct 02 2002 - 08:56:00 EDT

  • Next message: John Hudson: "Re: Omega + upsilon ligature?"

    To be correctly spelt, it would have to be omicron + upsilon: from your description, the appearance resembles that more closely as well.

    Old Latin orthography had all sorts of lovely contractions, many of them context-dependent: I seem to remember that u~ would mean "us" in "hominibus" but "um" in "gentium". But if that doesn't get you close enough to a nervous breakdown, look at the ligatures in printed *Greek* of (say) the 17th century. It's well up to Sanskrit standards!

    - Martin.

    At 13:38 02/10/02 +0200, Marco Cimarosti wrote:
    >I am trying to identify a Greek glyph found in an ancient Latin text. I have
    >not seen what it looks like, but it has been described to me as an "8" with
    >the top circle opened.
    >
    >The sign was in a word looking like "8???" ("8rn") and which, according to
    >the text, corresponds to Latin "urina". If I understand correctly, the text
    >also says that this sign is a diphthong which in Doric was substituted by a
    >plain "?" (omega): "Nam olem a Graecis per <8> diphthongum scribebatur, quae
    >Dorice in ? solet commutari".
    >
    >Therefore, I tentatively identified the word as "?????" ("urn"), and the
    >unknown glyph ligature as an "??" ligature ("u": omegha + upsilon).
    >
    >Does anyone know whether such a ligature actually existed in old typography?
    >And was it anything like an open "8"?
    >
    >Thanks in advance for any info.
    >
    >_ Marco
    >
    >
    >



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