From: Christopher Fynn (email@example.com)
Date: Sun May 23 2004 - 05:54:15 CDT
Peter Kirk wrote:
> As I understand it, what at least a number of Semitic scholars want to
> do is not to transliterate, but to represent Phoenician texts with
> Phoenician letters with the Unicode Hebrew characters, and fonts with
> Phoenician glyphs at the Hebrew character code points. In other words,
> to treat the difference between Hebrew and Phoenician as a font
> change, like the difference between Fraktur and normal Latin script.
> Will they be allowed to do that after a Phoenician block is defined,
> or will they not?
Of course they will.
> If a few people encode a significant number of texts according to
> their preferences, this implies a corpus in mixed encodings, which is
> what I am trying to avoid.
Is this an acknowledgment that their are at least a few people who would
prefer to encode Phoenician text using Phoenician characters?
If there is a one to one relationship from Phoenician to Hebrew
characters, then it should be straightforward to convert any text
encoded with Phoenician characters to Hebrew characters for those that
want them that way.
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