Re: Did the waw in [Dan. v. 8] change?

From: Mark E. Shoulson (
Date: Sat May 29 2004 - 20:51:30 CDT

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    Chris Jacobs wrote:

    >[Dan. v. 8] "They were not able to read the writing, nor to make its
    >The waw which is here translated as "nor". Has it, in this verse, allways
    >meant "nor" ?
    I don't know about "always in this verse," but it is true that the
    conjunctive waw, though in general meaning "and," often is used to mean
    "or." I can find some examples if you want. I dunno, how about Exodus
    21:15? It is unlikely that this is pronouncing a penalty only for
    someone who strikes *both* his parents. Rather, it's more "one who
    strikes his father OR his mother..." There are many, many such examples.

    >Compare Daniel 5:7
    >Who can ((read this) ∧(explain it to me)) gets purple and gold and other
    >rewards, or something like that.
    >I would expect in Daniel 5:8 the logical negation of this, something like:
    >They ¬ (were able to ((read the writing) ∧ (make its interpretation)))
    Natural-language conjunctions are rarely logical.


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