Re: Did the waw in [Dan. v. 8] change?

From: Chris Jacobs (
Date: Mon May 31 2004 - 00:25:35 CDT

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    ----- Original Message -----
    From: "Mark E. Shoulson" <>
    To: "Chris Jacobs" <>
    Cc: "Unicode List" <>
    Sent: Sunday, May 30, 2004 3:51 AM
    Subject: Re: Did the waw in [Dan. v. 8] change?

    > Chris Jacobs wrote:
    > >[Dan. v. 8] "They were not able to read the writing, nor to make its
    > >interpretation."
    > >
    > >The waw which is here translated as "nor". Has it, in this verse, allways
    > >meant "nor" ?
    > >
    > I don't know about "always in this verse," but it is true that the
    > conjunctive waw, though in general meaning "and," often is used to mean
    > "or." I can find some examples if you want. I dunno, how about Exodus
    > 21:15? It is unlikely that this is pronouncing a penalty only for
    > someone who strikes *both* his parents. Rather, it's more "one who
    > strikes his father OR his mother..." There are many, many such examples.

    And you recognize these because if you read waw as "and" there, the text
    makes no sense.

    But why would someone read waw as "or" in a text that already makes sense if
    you read it as "and" ?

    Is there _another_ way to recognize waw as "or" ?

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