From: Peter Kirk (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Mar 14 2005 - 15:48:21 CST
On 14/03/2005 16:50, Philippe Verdy wrote:
> (I am also wondering if Serbian Cyrillic and Serbian Latin are still
> the same language, given the huge differences of orthographies, which
> may affect its pronunciation, ...
This doesn't make sense. I don't know much about the Serbian situation,
but I have worked in another country where both Latin and Cyrillic
scripts are in use for the same language, and I can assure you that the
difference in script is not reflected in pronunciation. There is no
reason why it should be, given there is a clear one-to-one mapping
between the scripts, which are reasonably phonetic. And there is no
question that the language is the same even though the script is different.
Of course if the different scripts are in fact used by different social,
political or dialect groups, that may be a different matter, but the
script difference is not the cause of the pronunciation difference, they
are largely independent consequences of social and/or political factors.
-- Peter Kirk firstname.lastname@example.org (personal) email@example.com (work) http://www.qaya.org/ -- No virus found in this outgoing message. Checked by AVG Anti-Virus. Version: 7.0.308 / Virus Database: 266.7.2 - Release Date: 11/03/2005
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