From: William J Poser (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Jun 07 2007 - 09:28:59 CDT
>I seen a handful of examples in old texts where both a virama and vowel
>*do* occur on the same conjunct.
Hmm. That certainly never occurs in Sanskrit that I can recall.
Does it mean something or is it just an error, i.e. a case in
which the writer first wrote the virama and then realized he or
she needed a following vowel? Were these handwritten texts or
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