Re: Why blackletter letters?

From: Michael Everson <>
Date: Wed, 11 Sep 2013 10:22:30 +0100

On 11 Sep 2013, at 09:20, Otto Stolz <> wrote:

> E. g., in German fraktur text, there are specific rules for differentiating Long S »ſ« from Round S »s«, while in modern Latin text only the Round S has been used for decades (the latest Long S in modern Latin German printed text I have seen is from the 1950s, when it was already rather unusual; the official German spelling rules from 1996 do not mention the Long S any more). Hence, a modern Germn text, when simply transliterated into fraktur, will not be orthographically correct.

The same can be said for English texts using long s in Latin script from the 18th century and earlier. The rules have to do with orthographic practice (spelling) regarding particular characters (s, ſ), but that is essentially just a matter of spelling.

Michael Everson *
Received on Wed Sep 11 2013 - 04:24:12 CDT

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