Re: Why blackletter letters?

From: Charlie Ruland ☘ <>
Date: Wed, 11 Sep 2013 12:19:16 +0200

I wasn’t referring to the use of one or the other script throughout a
text, but to the habit of mixing them according to semantics within a
single sentence.


On 11 September 2013 schrieb Steffen Daode Nurpmeso wrote:
> Charlie Ruland ␦ <> wrote:
> |There is also a functional/semantic reason why /Fraktur/ — or rather
> |/gebrochene Schrift/ in general — and what you call “modern Latin” must
> [.]
> |borrowings. And this meant that two persons called Anne, one from Paris
> |and the other one from Berlin, were distinguishable by choice of script
> Yeah, my grandpa had all Karl May books in a single hardcover
> version series from before 1920 i think. I couldn't read it (i
> was allowed to look into one once, under observation). When he
> died i think they sold it (for money). It was also used in
> Asterix and the Goths iirc, by the Goths that is, so there can be
> seen which people use this kind of script!
> |Charlie
> --steffen
Received on Wed Sep 11 2013 - 05:21:04 CDT

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.2.0 : Wed Sep 11 2013 - 05:21:04 CDT