RE: TeX (was: apostrophe etc.) (probably offtopic)

From: Timothy Partridge (timpart@perdix.demon.co.uk)
Date: Mon Aug 23 1999 - 17:36:29 EDT


Alistair S. Vining recently said:

> I'm either misunderstanding here or just confused. It seems to have
> become an article of faith for many people that in 'real' printing there
> are never two spaces (or, a larger space) after a full stop. But does
> this 'rule' go back very far? Picking some random 'old' books, I find
> that nineteenth and early-twentieth century books all use two spaces,
> but that one space becomes common from about 1950 onwards. Is it just
> part of some quest for the mythical 'uniform grey'? Post-war rationing
> of spaces? Or does it have something to do with the pronouncements in
> the Mac Bible, and _The Mac is not a Typewriter_? I know that's where I
> found it :)

Hart's Rules (for the Oxford University Press) 39th edition 1983 says on
page 155 "The space of the line should be used after all points in normal
text. A special direction 'Close, with extra space after sentence full
points', will be given for works that require an extra space after sentence
full points (e.g. some bibliographies, dictionaries, and Classical texts)."

   Tim

-- 
Tim Partridge. Any opinions expressed are mine only and not those of my employer



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