From: Peter Kirk (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Jul 29 2003 - 10:31:36 EDT
On 29/07/2003 06:11, Karljürgen Feuerherm wrote:
>Well, that was precisely the question. Are we talking about a mere
>preference of visual effect or an actual difference in (original) text--that
>is, an intended semantic differentiation?
I don't agree that ancient history should necessarily determine this.
It's a bit like the distinction between U and V in English, in fact
closely analogous phonetically. As originally used in English they were
one character. But I don't think that would justify an argument that
they should now be encoded as one character and distinguished only by
context or markup. In current usage they are clearly distinct, and that
should be decisive.
Unfortunately it is not quite so clear for Hebrew as usage varies. But
the fact that many do not make the distinction is not an argument that
others who prefer to make the distinction should not be allowed to. K, I
don't think you French Canadians would be very happy if accented upper
case vowels were removed from Unicode because they are not used in
France. (I must find some way to divide you from the real French :-) )
-- Peter Kirk firstname.lastname@example.org http://web.onetel.net.uk/~peterkirk/
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