From: John Hudson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu May 20 2004 - 16:28:06 CDT
> In order for Phoenician to be "disunified" from Hebrew, it must
> first have been unified with Hebrew. This is not the case.
Okay, un-unified, non-unified, kept-separate-from ... pick your term.
At the moment Phoenician is neither unified nor non-unified with Hebrew *because no
decision has been made by the UTC*. Lack of a decision neither implies unification or
non-unification. Phoenician is in the box with Schroedinger's cat.
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