From: Patrick Andries (Patrick.Andries@xcential.com)
Date: Thu May 20 2004 - 16:59:52 CDT
James Kass a écrit :
>Ernest Cline wrote,
>>>In order for Phoenician to be "disunified" from Hebrew, it must
>>>first have been unified with Hebrew. This is not the case.
>>Well then, nonunification if you wish to be picky about it.
>Sorry if I offended. Many on this list have referred to the current
>proposal as a "disunification" and seem to be arguing that accepting
>this proposal would change and disrupt current Unicoding practices.
>In this case, I think it's important to be picky because there are
>no current Unicoding practices for Phoenician.
You may mean that the Unicode book does not document how Phoenician (or
Paleo-Hebrew) may be encoded. This is not to say that no one is using
Unicode to encode Paleo-Hebrew texts.
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