From: Peter Kirk (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Jan 05 2005 - 11:06:22 CST
On 05/01/2005 16:20, Antoine Leca wrote:
>On Wednesday, January 5th, 2005 14:18Z Philipp Reichmuth va escriure:
>>I wouldn't rule this out entirely. For example, I know one attempt
>>to implement a Tibetan font where the underlying representation was
>>Latin (Wylie), and the Tibetan glyphs were generated from the Latin
>>transliteration using OpenType rules.
>Or I did not understand you, or this has nothing to do with Unicode, much
>less Unicode/10646 conformance.
>The Tibetan characters are _never_ encoded using Unicode in this process,
>Looks like a clear case of nonconformance to me.
But which conformance clause is breached by this? Or by any other use of
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