From: Peter Kirk (peterkirk@qaya.org)
Date: Wed Jan 05 2005 - 11:06:22 CST
On 05/01/2005 16:20, Antoine Leca wrote:
>On Wednesday, January 5th, 2005 14:18Z Philipp Reichmuth va escriure:
>
>
>
>>I wouldn't rule this out entirely. For example, I know one attempt
>>to implement a Tibetan font where the underlying representation was
>>Latin (Wylie), and the Tibetan glyphs were generated from the Latin
>>transliteration using OpenType rules.
>>
>>
>
>Or I did not understand you, or this has nothing to do with Unicode, much
>less Unicode/10646 conformance.
>
>The Tibetan characters are _never_ encoded using Unicode in this process,
>are they?
>Looks like a clear case of nonconformance to me.
>
>
>
But which conformance clause is breached by this? Or by any other use of
masquerading fonts?
-- Peter Kirk peter@qaya.org (personal) peterkirk@qaya.org (work) http://www.qaya.org/ -- No virus found in this outgoing message. Checked by AVG Anti-Virus. Version: 7.0.300 / Virus Database: 265.6.8 - Release Date: 03/01/2005
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