Re: ISO 10646 compliance and EU law

From: Peter Kirk (peterkirk@qaya.org)
Date: Wed Jan 05 2005 - 11:06:22 CST

  • Next message: Philippe Verdy: "Re: ISO 10646 compliance and EU law"

    On 05/01/2005 16:20, Antoine Leca wrote:

    >On Wednesday, January 5th, 2005 14:18Z Philipp Reichmuth va escriure:
    >
    >
    >
    >>I wouldn't rule this out entirely. For example, I know one attempt
    >>to implement a Tibetan font where the underlying representation was
    >>Latin (Wylie), and the Tibetan glyphs were generated from the Latin
    >>transliteration using OpenType rules.
    >>
    >>
    >
    >Or I did not understand you, or this has nothing to do with Unicode, much
    >less Unicode/10646 conformance.
    >
    >The Tibetan characters are _never_ encoded using Unicode in this process,
    >are they?
    >Looks like a clear case of nonconformance to me.
    >
    >
    >
    But which conformance clause is breached by this? Or by any other use of
    masquerading fonts?

    -- 
    Peter Kirk
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    peterkirk@qaya.org (work)
    http://www.qaya.org/
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