From: Philippe Verdy (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Jan 05 2005 - 11:23:43 CST
From: "Antoine Leca" <Antoine10646@leca-marti.org>
> On Wednesday, January 5th, 2005 14:18Z Philipp Reichmuth va escriure:
>> I wouldn't rule this out entirely. For example, I know one attempt
>> to implement a Tibetan font where the underlying representation was
>> Latin (Wylie), and the Tibetan glyphs were generated from the Latin
>> transliteration using OpenType rules.
> Or I did not understand you, or this has nothing to do with Unicode, much
> less Unicode/10646 conformance.
> The Tibetan characters are _never_ encoded using Unicode in this process,
> are they?
> Looks like a clear case of nonconformance to me.
Also, Tibetan is not among the list of languages whose correct support is
needed in the European Union, because it is neither a official language of a
member or candidate country, or a recognized minority language, or a
language needed for exchanges between the European Union and other
countries. How would a "EU Law" require conformance to ISO/10646 for this
Certainly there are researches and academic uses of this script in Europe,
but support for this language and his script is certainly not mandatory in
Europe (i.e. the E.U. and the Free Trade European Economical Area, and even
the area of candidate countries, with which the E.U. has started
Thanks, no support for Tibetan is required on any ISO10646-compliant
products. All that is needed, is that when Tibetan characters are used in
documents intended to support the Tibetan script, it should be encoded
according to some standard compatible with ISO/IEC-10646 or Unicode. But a
product that would not display Tibetan, or would not recognize its grapheme
clusters would not be non compliant or "illegal" for use in Europe. The EU
has nothing to require about standards for use out of Europe.
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