From: Antoine Leca (Antoine10646@leca-marti.org)
Date: Wed Jan 05 2005 - 10:20:28 CST
On Wednesday, January 5th, 2005 14:18Z Philipp Reichmuth va escriure:
> I wouldn't rule this out entirely. For example, I know one attempt
> to implement a Tibetan font where the underlying representation was
> Latin (Wylie), and the Tibetan glyphs were generated from the Latin
> transliteration using OpenType rules.
Or I did not understand you, or this has nothing to do with Unicode, much
less Unicode/10646 conformance.
The Tibetan characters are _never_ encoded using Unicode in this process,
are they?
Looks like a clear case of nonconformance to me.
Antoine
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