From: Patrick Andries (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Sep 06 2005 - 00:34:08 CDT
John Hudson a écrit :
> I agree with Michael that it should be expected
Why since the non inverted sign is about never used and not really
attested in Spanish ? Otherwise, if the interrobang is indeed attested
in Spanish then its inverted form must also if the expectation holds
true. There should be absolutely no difficultly in finding the inverted
> that a sign based on two punctuation marks will conform to the
> typographical systems related to those marks.
That is if people use the normal interrobang in American Spanish,
obviously. Never seen. And I'm half the time in California and speak and
read Spanish papers here (La Opinión), watch Univision, etc. After all,
even in English the interrobang is very rare, to say the least.
> the existence of and inverted interrobang. If a user does want to use
> the interrobang with Spanish text -- e.g. to advertise prepackaged
> tacos on the side of a bus: ¡¿Qué pasa, señor?! --, then he is
> definitely going to want the corresponding inverted form.
He may always use a PUA character for this very unlikely event (ads as
comics may be very creative in their punctuation). Very unlikely event,
until proven otherwise.
> Accepting this implied need and moving on seems a better use of
> resources than investigating whether any Iberian use is attested.
Then the best solution is simply to drop the idea which has been
qualified as added silliness, methinks. I wonder why we still speak
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