From: Khaled Hosny (khaledhosny@eglug.org)
Date: Fri Jan 11 2008 - 03:58:22 CST
On Thu, Jan 10, 2008 at 08:21:43PM -0800, John Hudson wrote:
> Khaled Hosny wrote:
>
>> I think, after this discussion, there is a general agreement on the
>> desired behaviour of hamza in classic Arabic orthography, which is:
>> * Transparent character when laying between a Right join-causing and
>> Left join-causing causing characters.
>> * Non-joining in other cases.
>
>> As far as Arabic is concerned, this desired behaviour doesn't break
>> existing text as the first case is not allowed according to modern
>> Arabic spelling rules, and is valid only in classical Arabic (including
>> Quran).
>
> Are these 'rules' of modern Arabic spelling de jure rules, i.e. are they
> defined by some appropriate authority, or are they simply the outcome of de
> facto usage? If the latter, then are they reflected in handwriting as well
> as in computer-set text? And how long have these rules either been in place
> (if de jure) or been observable (if de facto)?
I'm referring to the rules defined by the Academy of Arabic Language in
Cairo, which is considered the highest authority of Arabic language in
Arab world, and yest those rules apply to handwritten text as well.
My guess is this rules has been defined some time in the early twenty
century.
-- Khaled Hosny
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Fri Jan 11 2008 - 04:01:04 CST