From: Jukka K. Korpela (jkorpela@cs.tut.fi)
Date: Thu May 14 2009 - 14:13:28 CDT
Joó Ádám wrote:
> "However, for languages with more inflection at the end of the word it
> becomes less true (so for example French or Slavic languages), and
> completely false for agglutinative languages (take Finnish or
> Hungarian for European, Latin script examples)."
What is this supposed to relate to? You don't even cite the source of your
purported quotation. People who get hundreds of email messages per day
should not be expected to check back what you are referring to.
Specifically, what is "it" here?
> This is certainly not the case. This classic example has a perfect
> identical version in Hungarian, and it is clearly readable.
Whatever you are talking about, it is based on a false postulate. Finnish is
not an agglutinative language - far from that. It has extensive stem
alteration as well as varying allomorphs for suffixes.
-- Yucca, http://www.cs.tut.fi/~jkorpela/
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