From: Joó Ádám (email@example.com)
Date: Thu May 14 2009 - 06:42:12 CDT
"However, for languages with more inflection at the end of the word it
becomes less true (so for example French or Slavic languages), and
completely false for agglutinative languages (take Finnish or
Hungarian for European, Latin script examples)."
This is certainly not the case. This classic example has a perfect
identical version in Hungarian, and it is clearly readable.
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