From: Alain LaBonté (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Oct 30 2002 - 10:53:10 EST
A 21:46 2002-10-29 +0000, Michael Everson a écrit :
>At 13:27 -0800 2002-10-29, Kenneth Whistler wrote:
>>> My eyes have glazed over reading this discussion. What am I being
>>> asked to agree with?
>>Here's the executive summary for those without the time to
>>plow through the longer exchange:
>>Marco: It is o.k. (in a German-specific context) to display
>> an umlaut as a macron (or a tilde, or a little e above),
>> since that is what Germans do.
>>Kent: It is *not* o.k. -- that constitutes changing a character.
>[Michael] Kent can't be right here.
[Alain] However I agree with Kent. Let's say a text identified as German
quotes a French word with an U DIAERESIS *in the German text* (a word like
"capharnaüm"). It would be a heresy to show a macron in a printed text in
this context. In French *nobody* uses this practice that is frequent in
German handwriting (but not in printing, unless I am wrong).
One has to respect characters for what they are. A U DIAERESIS is not a U
MACRON even if its codepoint is shared with a German U UMLAUT that may be
handwritten with a *vague* resemblance to a U MACRON.
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